Can you give me a classic Islamic commentary that says Surah 9:111 is not a general command? Was it not the last major Surah to be revealed? And within the Surah itself, can you show me how 9:111 is contextualised to a certain point in time?

On killing of innocents, did Muhammad not also famously say in Sahih Muslim 1745a,

"It is reported on the authority of Sa'b b. Jaththama that the Prophet of Allah (ﷺ), when asked about the women and children of the polytheists being killed during the night raid, said:

They are from them."

And is a Christian who believes Jesus is the Son of God innocent in Islam? Or should they be fought and subjugated as per 9:29-9:30?

What about someone who changes his Islamic religion? Is that an innocent person or did Muhammad say such a person should be killed?

And finally if I am wrong about the terror verses, how come for fourteen centuries Islam has always been synonymous with terror? Why are all the major terrorist organisations on the planet today Islamic? How come the constitution of Iran cites those verses (8:60) and takes it for granted that it means to terrorise people and spread Jihad through out the world?

How come for some odd reason, these guys don't realise Islam is really peaceful and does not call for terror at all?