Okay, so how come David in the Psalms writes that God will not leave his soul in sheol or allow his Holy one to suffer corruption? The point is it is found in virtually every section of the Jewish scriptures.

In the Torah, God long after the death of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob calls Himself the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, God is the God of the living not the dead, Jesus Himself used this logic to show the Sadducees they were wrong about the resurrection not occuring.

In the writings, we have the resurrection in Job, which you call "Jewish poetry" and again in Psalm 16, David writes that God will not leave his soul in hell or suffer his holy one to see corruption. So resurrection is in the writings.

In the prophets, we have Isaiah and Ezekiel speaking about the resurrection.

All of this was composed way before the 2nd century BC. So riddle me this please. How come in every section of what the Jews deem inspired scripture (Torah, prophets , writings), we have the resurrection alluded to, yet you say it was not a Jewish belief until the 2nd century BC? I am confused.

To determine what is and is not a Jewish belief, should we not be going to the SOURCE of the Jewish religion which are what the Jews deem authoritative and inspired scriptures?

And I love how you the underlying implication of your argument is that Josephus cannot simply be wrong. He is very wrong when he says ONLY Pharisees believed in the resurrection...but we can go down that road later, for now, I want to stick with this 2nd century BC claim..